Charisma & Resists

No, honestly, he's right. It's not really fair to him that we all latched onto Birlic's retarded post and ignored the (excellent) information he's gathered, which actually does show a pattern. I'm honestly unsure how the resist calc works exactly, but I know we don't use "brackets" anywhere else. I think that despite your significant samples, it's still too small to account for fluctuations - such as, for instance, 140 charisma yielding a higher resist rate than 120 charisma. I'll see if I can get a statistical test run based on the real formula with a sample of 10000+ for each test.

There's a time and place for a light sense of humor, but there's no time for shitting up a perfectly valid thread, which is exactly what we were doing here. So, Jame, I'm sorry for derailing your thread, and I'm gonna try and look into this, if for nothing else than to provide final, statistical proof that the resist calc does work (or if it doesn't, show that so we can fix it).
 
Well I can assure you my intent was not to muddy up a perfectly good thread. Just having a bit of nostalgia, my apologies.
 
While I imagine this will be seen as doing the same thing as my first post in this thread, I will agree with the above poster. Well, maybe it wasn't nostalgia. I found your tests and results fascinating, but was just joking around/having some fun. Sorry if you feel that it significantly detracted from your original post.
 
Apologies if any felt my post was on the harsh side. I was struggling to find a way to do it politely and didn't suceed. No ill feelings towards anyone on my part.

Back on subject, I'd be interested to know if either levels/race/class influenced the resist calculations as well. A brand-new-to-the-server-untwinked-level 1 and a well-decked-out-level 65 can have a 200+ point gap in charisma. A level 1 Ogre Shaman starts with a 42 point base charisma, a level 1 High Elf Enchanter starts off with a 90 point base charisma, a 48 point gap. For charisma to influence resists a signifcant amount AND for all races/classes/levels to be able to land spells a satisfactory amount, there has to be an adjustment somewhere.

I wonder if this adjustment isn't in the spells themselves. Considering the sheer number of spells out there, I can see the potential to have some problems. Some people will have problems, others won't. We already know some spells land easier than others. I made an Ogre Shaman and a Dwarf Cleric (45 base charisma) and went out into the newbie zone to see how they fared. I used the level 1 DD. The Ogre went 0/5/16 and the Dwarf went 0/2/14. (partial resists/full resists/attempts). Not a significant sample size, but it shows that even with lousy charisma, some spells can land easily enough.

Calaran, you mentioned you had a dwarf cleric and deleted him and went to an elven cleric because of resists in Lull and similar type spells. What other spells did you see a noticeable resist difference in or was the difference in resists across the board?
 
I have to be completely honest and admit that I did little to no testing on that. I still have the lvl 10 dwarf cleric, just don't play him but would gladly offer him up for a test subject.

Lull was the only thing that I noticed because honestly all I did with him was hp/ac buff myself, and then attempt to melee... using lull to split mobs... so up to the level 10 mark, I had never once used any targetted spell on npc's other than lull... I didn't parse logs, and was playing him in Fearstone (which I've since learned is a bit tougher zone anyway) so I'd hate to make guesses as to % resists or things like that, but my general feel was that on the entry mobs (were dark blue - white), I was getting resisted... gah, it seems like it was well over 50% of the time... but that's really a guess at this point.

If someone wants to do any testing, let me know what sorts of tests need be run and I'll gladly run them with him.
 
I lost sight of your very well thought out post as well Jame. I shouldn't have contributed to the idiocy bashing (the first reply to your post), and for that I appologize. :(
 
When I made my Gnome Mage I put 25 points (most I could) into CHA and 5 into INT. I am only lvl 18 and have few items with stats, and few of those itesm add CHA, but I rarely get resists when I fight things my level. I some times get a resists when fighting a yellow, and I can land some nukes on reds, but when it is a high level red, I can't hit it at all. But because I am only lvl 18, I dont know how resists will work at higher levels. Any way, I like the way you get loot. There are a lot of low level attainable items that do not have the best stats, but they are good to have until you are a high level. I already have some softleather armor and some pixie silk. And just yesterday I got a crown that has the focus effect to reduce cast time. So who cares if your stats are not all maxed out, this game is not purely about having the best equipment, although it is a fun part to gain new, better stuff, I think its about making friends and having fun =(.
 
JayelleNephilim said:
Syrie Cinders said:
No no no, it's up up down down left right left right B A start.

Actually it's, up up down down left right left right B A SELECT start. :p

I know the joke's a bit old but i gotta pitch in some Shoken Sarcasm©

You'd have to get a double flawless victory while on the pit stage plus perform a fatality without using the block button WHILE a santa clause shaped cloud hovers over the moon OR earn 10, 000, 000 pts.
 
JayelleNephilim said:
Syrie Cinders said:
No no no, it's up up down down left right left right B A start.

Actually it's, up up down down left right left right B A SELECT start. :p

I know the joke's a bit old but i gotta pitch in some Shoken Sarcasm©

You'd have to get a double flawless victory while on the pit stage plus perform a fatality without using the block button WHILE a santa clause shaped cloud hovers over the moon OR earn 10, 000, 000 pts.
 
If [see footnote 1]
Resist_Rate = 44% - cha/10
then:

Predicted%, Expected resists on 300 casts, Expected obeserved %s on 300 casts
080: 36%, 108 +-16.0, 30% to 41%
100: 34%, 102 +-16.0, 28% to 39%
120: 32%, 096 +-16.0, 26% to 37%
140: 30%, 090 +-15.5, 25% to 35%
160: 28%, 084 +-15.0, 23% to 33%
180: 26%, 078 +-15.0, 21% to 31%
200: 24%, 072 +-14.5, 19% to 29%
220: 22%, 066 +-14.0, 17% to 27%
240: 20%, 060 +-13.5, 15% to 25%
260: 18%, 054 +-13.0, 13% to 23%
280: 16%, 048 +-12.5, 11% to 21%

The +- value is the radius of 1.96 standard deviations from the mean given that number of binomials added up.

Original data:
80 -- 112/309 -- 36.2% (I had to catch the Rotting Plague to get it this low Very Happy )
100 -- 111/314 -- 35.3%
120 -- 89/309 -- 28.8%
140 -- 98/319 -- 30.7%
160 -- 93/312 -- 29.8%
180 -- 76/304 -- 25.0%
200 -- 79/332 -- 23.8%
220 -- 77/330 -- 23.3%
240 -- 73/303 -- 24.1%
260 -- 67/310 -- 21.6%
280 -- 50/326 -- 15.3% (I'm capped at 280)

I don't see anything outside the 95% confidence intervals.

A much fancier statistical analisys could be done.

Anyone want to do a student's t distribution analysis?
Or find a slope of best fit?

[footnote 1]:
I made up (44 - cha/10)% resist rate. I chose 44% and cha/10 values because
a> 10 is a round number that is near [ 200/(36.2-15.3) ] I like round numbers. They are pretty.

b> 44 - cha/10 gives a nominal 36% and 16% resist rates at 80 and 280 cha, which is close to the observed values.

So don't put much faith in it. A proper solution would require doing real statistics.

Conclusion:
I don't see any convincing evidence that there is a "step" there. The resist curve could be really strait and generate values that look very much like those observed.
 
LOL, I love your statistics stuff. Its sooo cool. The take home message is still the fact that there is basically no difference between 180-240cha.
 
I can confirm that the curve is straight, and starts at 0, not 80 or somesuch.
 
Very nice Yakk. I like it a lot.

Where does the 1.96 standard deviation come form?

What's the sample size needed to achieve ± 3% confidence? ±1% confidence? Since Wiz confirmed it's a straight line all I need is two data points with a ton of samples to really pinpoint it.
 
Jame said:
Very nice Yakk. I like it a lot.

Where does the 1.96 standard deviation come form?

1.96 standard deviations is the radius of the mean-centered 95% confidence interval.

It comes from integrating e^(x^2) (I think that is the equation). Practically, people just use tables, because there isn't any simple closed-form formula for it.

Ie, the area under the curve:
e^(x^2)
between
x = -1.96
and
x = 1.96
is about .95, which represents 95% of the distribution. (There may be a multiplcation by Pi I'm missing somewhere, but you get the drift).

What's the sample size needed to achieve ± 3% confidence? ±1% confidence? Since Wiz confirmed it's a straight line all I need is two data points with a ton of samples to really pinpoint it.

I don't know "student's T"[1] distrubution well enough -- that is the one that will actually give you this result. And I'm too lazy to learn it. =)

But, "student's T" approaches the normal curve, so I'll pretend it is the normal curve, and give you a possibly incorrect answer. ;)

It is somewhat a function of p (the probability in question).

Var = p*(1-p)*n
SD = sqrt(Var)
95% confidence = SD * 1.96
accuracy = 1.96 * SD / n
crunch crunch crunch...

The highest value p(1-p) can be, for p from 0 to 1, is at p=0.5. At this point, p(1-p) is 1/4. (thie higher p(1-p) is, the more samples you need. I'll assume it is maximal to give you a lower bound on the number of samples you need.)

Let's use this to find a sufficient number of samples:

accuracy = 1.96 * sqrt(0.25 * n)/n = 1.96 * sqrt(0.25/n)
if we want a 0.01 accuracy:
0.01 = 1.96 sqrt(0.25/n)
0.0001 = 3.84 * 0.25/n
n = 3.84 * 0.25 * 10000
n = 9604 for +/- 1%

for +/- 3%, n = 1067 or so.

To simplify:
1.96 * 1.96 is about 4.
so we end up with:
accuracy = 1/n^2
or
n = 1/accuracy^2

Rough chart of Accuracy vs Samples:
0.05 is 400 samples (5% accuracy requires about 400 samples)
0.04 is 625 samples
0.03 is 1111 samples (3% accuracy requires about 1000 samples)
0.02 is 2500 samples
0.01 is 10000 samples (1% accuracy requires about 10,000 samples)
0.005 is 40000 samples
0.004 is 62500 samples (0.4% accuracy requires about 60,000 samples)
0.002 is 250000 samples
0.001 is 1000000 samples (0.1% accuracy requires about 1 million samples)

You may be able to do better in specific situations. And I don't know how tightly the student's T compares to the normal curve -- however, odds are I've included enough fudge factors to make up for any difference, however.

Given two test a and b points with p_a and p_b, how accurate will the slope be?

slope:
(p_b-p_a)/(b-a)
but we only know p_b and p_a to within an error amount "err".

so the slope error ends up being:
slperr = 2*err/(b-a)

Lets start out with the assumption that p changing by 2% everty 10 cha is about correct.

That is a slope of 0.2% for every cha.

slperr/slp = 1000 * err /(b-a)

set our test points to a = 80 b = 280 gives a b-a of 200
slperr/slp = 5 * err
as a fraction of the calculated slope.

If our original points are accurate to within +/-3% raw chance (about 1000 samples), then we could be confident our slope is accurate to within +/- 15% of the calculated slope.

If you do 10000 samples at both 80 and 280 cha, and you end up with a value of 2% per 10 cha, you can be confident that the result is between 1.9% and 2.1% for every 10 cha (5% of 2% is 0.1%, so +/-0.1%).

10,000 samples is a 8 hour parse run using a bard autosinging every 3 seconds (or do they only autosing every 6? if so, 16 hours).

Using a = 100 and b = 280 would only increase the 20000 sample error to 1.89% to 2.11%, so don't worry about it if you can't hit 80 cha.

[1] cute story: the distribution is called "student's T" because the inventor of the distribution was working for a (beer? I think) company who wouldn't let him publish his statistics work under his own name. So he published his paper under the name "student".

If I remember right, student's T is the difference between a random sampling of a normal population and the theoretical normal distribution. It is how close your sample's mean and variance get to the "real" mean and standard deviation as you increase the number of samples.
 
hooden said:
LOL, I love your statistics stuff. Its sooo cool. The take home message is still the fact that there is basically no difference between 180-240cha.

/shrug, does getting 1 less resist on every 20 casts, on average, not make you chipper?

I have wondered if games like this would be better served by a less-random RNG. Imagine a spell system where your first cast on a mob might have a 70% chance of success, but on a resist your next cast might have a 85% or 91% chance of success -- the more resists in a row, the more you have 'battered' at the mob's resists, and the more likely a spell would land.

Hmm. It could be made tight. If one attached to the aggro list: (the map of player -> amount of aggro the mob feels)
(# of resists in a row, spell ID)
and used that to modulate resist chances... (just one entry per player on the mob's aggro list -- if the player switches spells, they are SOL -- or multiple entries (3 or 4 entries would give it enough memory to not be much of a problem, practically.)[1])

Repeatedly casting a spell could then "batter down" the NPC's resists. Possibly if the spell has been resisted N times before, the spell would get (N+1) resist checks and if it passed any one of them it would land.

Currently, a mob that has a 70% chance to resist a spell makes the spell completely useless. It takes 9 casts before the player has a 95% chance of landing the spell on the mob. But with a "batter down resists" system, it only takes 4 casts.

Chance to resist once, number of casts required to land a spell 95% of the time (current system), 95% confidence (batter down resists system)
10%, 2, 2
20%, 2, 2
30%, 3, 2
40%, 4, 3
50%, 5, 3
60%, 6, 3
70%, 9, 4
80%, 14, 5
90%, 29, 8
95%, 59, 11
99%, 299, 24

that curve isn't ideal. Meh.

The statistical effect of this would be reducing the number of "losing streaks" with resists, but allowing a high "upfront" resist chance.

Another useful number would be "effective resist chance" when someone chain-casts a spell (say a nuke) on a mob.

Math is tricky. Can't solve that one yet.

Negative effects:
It discourages changing spells when you get a resist and encourages you to "stick to your guns". The enchanter-tactic of "mez, resist -> PBAOE spell defence", for example, becomse sub-optimal when your second mez has a far lower resist chance (having been resisted once before) than your PABOE defence does.

Having this type of effect cross more than one spell might encourage strange behaviour, like casting efficient low-aggro spells until you get a nice collection of resists, then letting loose with your "big boom" important spell. On the other hand, this wouldn't be that horrible, I suppose (in extreme cases, it could get silly -- people removing cha gear in order to get resisted, so they can land their big boom reliably...)

One could record the "total resisted spell power" that the mob has accumulated per player (power = the total mana wasted? total aggro caused by the spell?), and use that and the next spell's "power" to determine how many resist tries the next spell gets? ... that works pretty well, actually.

Bah, I've gotten way off track.
 
Running a simple linear regression test of charisma vs. failure rate, I got approximately:
y = .4264 - .0008837x, where x is charisma and y is the failure rate. This model does not take into account the number of samples. With an r^2 of .9027, this is not the greatest model. The sum of the residuals, however, is very close to 0 (no outliers). Even though the r^2 is not that great, this line is the best fit for these data.

Running further tests...

Assuming that the regression line calculated represents the true (population) proportion, I computed 1-proportion Z tests (p != p0) on each charisma level.

80: z=.2580, p=.8040
100: z=.5796, p=.5622
120: z=-1.2179, p=.2232
140: z=.1760, p=.8603
160: z=-.1770, p=.8595
180: z=-.6829, p=.4947
200: z=-.4929, p=.6221
220: z=.0560, p=.9538
240: z=1.1289, p=.2589
260: z=.8634, p=.3879
280: z=-1.2053, p=.2281

What I've done is not much more than what Yakk did. Instead of picking an arbitrary linear function, I calculated one. I also did tests in order to calculate a p.

So, what do these values mean? The z is the number of standard deviations away from the population proportion the sample was. A z of .5233 is that many standard deviations above the population proportion. A negative z means it is that many standard deviations below the population proportion. The p value is the probability that the sample could have occurred by chance from the population data. In this case, it is the probability that the data given in the sample can be explained by the model I produced above.

None of the results are significantly different from the expected results. The results aren't different enough even with an alpha of .10 (confidence level of 90%). These calculations don't prove that the model I found was THE model, just that it can explain the data that was collected.



In order to get a better model, we need data gathered with a larger sample size.
 
Sample size of 100 or so or so seems pretty good to me, I mean after all that's enough casts with one spell on one type of mob, possibly even 2 with the same cha to generalize to the population and there should be enough subjects to have adequate power. Though this would be exceedingly slow as there are many many types of mobs in the game w/different resist rates. A possible confound also comes up in that some of the mobs spawn by other mobs that will buff them, making their innate resists higher if it tosses on the right spells...
 
hooden said:
LOL, I love your statistics stuff. Its sooo cool. The take home message is still the fact that there is basically no difference between 180-240cha.

Rational reasoning at work!

No, in Jame's original, limited sample size, there is no significant difference. However, the results are statistically acceptable as people with a better grasp of math than I have explained in the thread. As I said earlier, with a sample size of five thousand instead of one hundred, you will see much more appropriate results because it is much less affected by random fluctuations towards the extremes.
 
As I am a new player some of my questions/comments might be silly. However, I am quite interested in the game mechanics, so I will ask them anyway. I was really surprised to find out that a linear dependence fits well (i would have expected a $x/(a + x)$ type. The linear dependence $y=a+bx$ being confirmed by wiz, what remains to be done is:

1. Find an explanation for the plateaus observed which
1a. can be a result of rounding (e.g. $y=c(a+[bx])$)
1b. can be a result of correlations in the samples (I might have missed it, but were all your results coming from the same mob, or the same mob type changing the mob a few times?)

2. Find what a and b depend on and how. This leads to a set of subquestions addressed to wiz (or to whoever finds a method to test them).
2a. Is the same formula for resists used in PvP as in PvE?
2b. Except of a mob intrinsic resist in a given area and the difference in levels between the caster and the mob does the resist depend on anything else (e.g. the particular spell used, race of the caster et cetera)?

3. Draw a few conclusions.
3a. As y from a linear dependence is not bounded, the probability of a resist is, so if you are in the region which gets truncated, changing charisma will not change your resist if you get resisted all the time or never.
3b. In term of dealing damage, charisma will help you much more if you have a high change of being resisted than if not.
Example: A. 10 nukes of 1000 damage which are originally 20% resisted: you do 800 dmg. If you change by cha by X, which modifies your resist rate by 10%, you end up with 10 nukes of 1000 damage 10% resisted thus doing 900dmg a 12% increase in dmg.
B. 10 nukes of 1000 damage which are originally 90% resisted you do 100 dmg. If you change by cha by X, which modifies your resist rate by 10%, you end up with 10 nukes of 1000 damage 80% resisted thus doing 200dmg a 100% increase in dmg.

P.S. Great game! I am looking forward to meeting you all in the game. I would love to know a few things more about the game mechanics and I do not mind doing some testing and statistical analysis. However, at the moment, my character is far from being capable of collecting data over wide range of charisma. As well, are there threads which analyze the effects of str, dex, ATK on melee dmg done and AC, agi on melee dmg received?
 
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